In my last post someone in the comments asked, “If Jesus is the greatest prophet and Son of God, and if homosexuality was such a bar to eternal life, why didn’t Jesus address this?” I’ve heard this argument on numerous occasions and want to address it.

First, Jesus addressed the homosexuality issue when he brought the standards of marriage and sexuality back to the Creation (Matthew 19:4, 5). At creation, Jesus claimed that God made “male and female.” And that because of this creation of human kind “a man will leave his father and mother and cling to his wife.” By limiting the marriage relationship to men and women, Jesus is speaking against homosexual practice (and much of our common divorce and remarriage practices as well).

Second, the Greek word Jesus uses in Matthew 19:9 condemns homosexual practice. The word is porneia. The word refers to any “unlawful sexual intercourse.” This would include homosexuality. Thus, Jesus does deal with the issue of homosexuality by his usage of this word. He also condemns incest and bestiality. (By the way if we use the logic found in our introductory question we would have to say those two are okay as well).

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